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MidTerm / Re: MT Problem 3
« on: March 16, 2013, 12:51:20 PM »
Just got my midterm back on Friday and looked carefully through..
In the official 2013Midterm answers (both versions on Forum and on CourseSite), why we, when using variation-method, have
v1 = - ∫ (t^2 + 1) g(t) / Wronskian dt ?? what is (t^2 +1) ?! Should that not be y2 = t^2 ?!
And how do we, from this step, get the next step, where (t^2 +1) changes to t with no reason ?
I see the results of v1 and v2 are correct, but the steps are totally incomprehensible and WRONG.
And why Wronskian = -t^2 ? should it not be t^2 ?
In the official 2013Midterm answers (both versions on Forum and on CourseSite), why we, when using variation-method, have
v1 = - ∫ (t^2 + 1) g(t) / Wronskian dt ?? what is (t^2 +1) ?! Should that not be y2 = t^2 ?!
And how do we, from this step, get the next step, where (t^2 +1) changes to t with no reason ?
I see the results of v1 and v2 are correct, but the steps are totally incomprehensible and WRONG.
And why Wronskian = -t^2 ? should it not be t^2 ?